请教各位高手，实际问题。
1. a property was purchased in Aug 1999, and developed into 2 homes, 1 of which was sold in 2004 and the margin scheme was applied. The other home was rented, and sold in the March 09.
question: Does margin still apply to the sencond home? say, if the valuation price on 01/07/2000 of the first one was $450,000, would this figure still be appcicable to the second?
2. one party (individual, who is owner) purchased the land and another company supplied the finance for building. The GST on all the building expenses was claimed on the BAS‘s of the company.
question: what kind of GST effect would be on the company's perspective?
3. a property, neither developed nor first time on market, sold by a company.
question: any GST on sale?
another general question: developed property becomes NEW property for GST purpose?
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顶一下啊
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i am not quite sure what you are asking.
first of all, you need to do some research on margin scheme and assess whehter you are eligible (i.e the land acquired is GST free, or the supplier of the land used margin scheme etc)
Secondly, assess if you can actually charge GST on sale of properties. It sounds like the company is selling residential properties, and there is no GST on sale of second hand residential properties. If the entity is GST registered and have claimed GST on the developing costs, there is potentially a GST claw back issue.
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Does the above answered your questions?
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